While I google for references, somebody refresh my memory – how new (or, at least, little known) was the concept of infinity while Shakespeare was writing? I know I saw someplace some references to just when it was first written about and by whom, but I can’t seem to put my finger on them. I’d like to learn more about just how big of a deal it was that Shakespeare “jumped on the bandwagon early”, so to speak. That he “got” the concept of infinity pretty quickly. That is, of course, if that’s true. I could be completely misunderstanding the timing and it could have been a concept every groundling understood, too. But I don’t think so. I’m looking now, but every combination of googling for “Shakespeare” and “infinity” just turns up damned monkey typing references. P.S. – My Mobius “infinity bracelet” has apparently arrived, so presentation to wife coming soon. I say apparently because it arrived while I was on vacation over the weekend and all I got was a note in the mail saying I had to sign for it. A note that arrived AT MY HOUSE INSTEAD OF MY BUSINESS ADDRESS so my wife is all “What’s this?” I’m not thrilled with this development, especially since I was planning to hide it until September for our anniversary. Oh, well. I’ll let everybody know how it came out and how she likes it.
The OED cites Chaucer (1374) as the first instance of “infinity.” Its use is also cited in the next century, especially in relation to God. I think Shakespeare got scooped on this one.
Fair enough. Thanks for the reference!